5o mcq about anesthesiology
2. The reversal agent for benzodiazepines is: a) Flumazenil b) Naloxone c) Neostigmine d) Protamine
3. Which gas is most commonly used as an inhalational anesthetic? a) Nitrous oxide b) Sevoflurane c) Desflurane d) Isoflurane
4. Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent. It is rapidly hydrolyzed by: a) Acetylcholinesterase b) Butyrylcholinesterase c) Neostigmine d) Pancuronium
5. Malignant Hyperthermia is most commonly triggered by: a) Succinylcholine b) Isoflurane c) Rocuronium d) Vecuronium
6. Which of the following drugs is used to treat malignant hyperthermia? a) Dantrolene b) Propranolol c) Vecuronium d) Lidocaine
7. Local anesthetics primarily block: a) Sodium channels b) Potassium channels c) Calcium channels d) Chloride channels
8.Which local anesthetic is commonly added to epidural anesthesia to prolong the duration of action? a) Bupivacaine b) Lidocaine c) Ropivacaine d) Procaine
9. The term "MAC" in anesthesia stands for: a) Minimum Alveolar Concentration b) Maximum Analgesic Concentration c) Mean Anesthetic Clearance d) Maximum Anesthetic Capacity
10.The Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) is an example of: a) A supraglottic airway device b) An endotracheal tube c) A tracheostomy tube d) A nasopharyngeal airway
11.Which muscle relaxant is commonly used in rapid sequence intubation (RSI)? a) Rocuronium b) Vecuronium c) Atracurium d) Pancuronium
12.All of the following are common complications of epidural anesthesia except: a) Hypotension b) Headache c) Nerve injury d) Thrombocytosis
13.Which of the following is a common opioid used for postoperative pain management? a) Morphine b) Midazolam c) Propofol d) Ketamine
14.The most common cause of difficult mask ventilation is: a) Obesity b) Short neck c) Mallampati class I airway d) Normal anatomy
15.An endotracheal tube placed into the esophagus instead of the trachea is known as: a) Esophageal intubation b) Difficult intubation c) Tube dislodgement d) Tracheal deviation
16.Which of the following drugs is a long-acting benzodiazepine used for conscious sedation? a) Diazepam b) Lorazepam c) Midazolam d) Flumazenil
17.The nerve most commonly affected in regional anesthesia for knee surgery is the: a) Femoral nerve b) Sciatic nerve c) Obturator nerve d) Peroneal nerve
18. Which inhaled anesthetic agent has the lowest blood-gas partition coefficient? a) Desflurane b) Isoflurane c) Sevoflurane d) Nitrous oxide
19.Which of the following muscle relaxants is associated with histamine release and is contraindicated in patients with allergies? a) Atracurium b) Rocuronium c) Vecuronium d) Pancuronium
20.The "train-of-four" test is used to assess: a) Neuromuscular blockade b) Depth of anesthesia c) Blood pressure d) Oxygen saturation
21.The "diffusion hypoxia" effect can occur after discontinuing which inhaled anesthetic? a) Desflurane b) Isoflurane c) Sevoflurane d) Nitrous oxide
22.Local anesthetics are commonly combined with vasoconstrictors like epinephrine to: a) Prolong the duration of action b) Reduce the risk of allergy c) Enhance analgesia d) Increase muscle relaxation
23.An anesthetic technique that involves injecting local anesthetic around the nerves to block sensation to a specific region of the body is called: a) General anesthesia b) Spinal anesthesia c) Epidural anesthesia d) Regional anesthesia
24.Which of the following medications is commonly used for rapid sequence intubation to reduce the risk of aspiration? a) Ondansetron b) Metoclopramide c) Ranitidine d) Sodium bicarbonate
25.The preferred method for confirming endotracheal tube placement is: a) Auscultation of breath sounds b) Observation of chest rise c) Chest X-ray d) End-tidal carbon dioxide monitoring
26. Which opioid antagonist is used for the management of opioid overdose? a) Naloxone b) Naltrexone c) Narcan d) Nalmefene
27.Anesthesia awareness refers to: a) The patient's ability to recall intraoperative events b) The patient's ability to remain fully conscious during surgery c) The patient's perception of pain during surgery d) The patient's ability to move during surgery
28.Which of the following is a potential complication of spinal anesthesia? a) Hypertension b) Urinary retention c) Tachycardia d) Allergic reaction
29.Intraoperative malignant hyperthermia is managed primarily with: a) Dantrolene and cooling measures b) Intravenous fluids and corticosteroids c) Epinephrine and phenylephrine d) Diazepam and atropine
30.Which of the following nerve blocks is commonly used for postoperative pain management after abdominal surgeries? a) Transversus abdominis plane (TAP) block b) Femoral nerve block c) Intercostal nerve block d) Sciatic nerve block
31.Which anesthetic gas is contraindicated in patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia? a) Nitrous oxide b) Desflurane c) Isoflurane d) Sevoflurane
32.The most common cause of difficult intubation is: a) Limited mouth opening b) Short thyromental distance c) High Mallampati score d) Cervical spine immobility
33.In regional anesthesia, local anesthetics are commonly injected: a) Subcutaneously b) Intramuscularly c) Intravenously d) Perineurally
34.Which of the following drugs is commonly used for sedation in the Intensive Care Unit (ICU)? a) Fentanyl b) Dexmedetomidine c) Remifentanil d) Methohexital
35.Which class of medications is commonly used to reverse neuromuscular blockade? a) Anticholinesterases b) Anticholinergics c) Benzodiazepines d) Beta-blockers
36.The primary site of action for opioids is in the: a) Nucleus accumbens b) Ventral tegmental area c) Substantia nigra d) Dorsal horn of the spinal cord
37.Which of the following drugs is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent? a) Rocuronium b) Succinylcholine c) Pancuronium d) Cisatracurium
38.The most common side effect of opioids is: a) Hypertension b) Tachycardia c) Constipation d) Bronchospasm
39.Which local anesthetic is commonly used for ophthalmic procedures due to its low risk of causing systemic toxicity? a) Bupivacaine b) Lidocaine c) Ropivacaine d) Tetracaine
40.The "triple airway maneuver" is used to assess: a) Upper airway patency b) Endotracheal tube cuff pressure c) Oxygen saturation d) Depth of anesthesia
41.Which of the following drugs is a long-acting opioid agonist used for chronic pain management? a) Fentanyl b) Morphine c) Methadone d) Oxycodone
42.Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with spinal anesthesia? a) Hypertension b) Hyperthermia c) Bradycardia d) Post-dural puncture headache
43.Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur in response to certain medications, including: a) Opioids b) Local anesthetics c) Benzodiazepines d) Muscle relaxants
44.The "difficult airway algorithm" is a standardized approach to manage: a) Hypoxemia b) Hypotension c) Difficult intubation d) Nausea and vomiting
45.Which of the following medications is commonly used for conscious sedation during minor procedures? a) Propofol b) Ketamine c) Dexmedetomidine d) Midazolam
46.The most common side effect of nitrous oxide administration is: a) Respiratory depression b) Nausea and vomiting c) Hypotension d) Muscle rigidity
47.Which local anesthetic is commonly used for spinal anesthesia? a) Bupivacaine b) Lidocaine c) Ropivacaine d) Procaine
48.The "Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)" technique is used primarily for patients at risk of: a) Aspiration b) Airway obstruction c) Bradycardia d) Hypotension
49.Postoperative shivering can be effectively treated with: a) Opioids b) Benzodiazepines c) Antipyretics d) Clonidine
50.The primary goal of regional anesthesia is to: a) Achieve deep sedation b) Minimize intraoperative pain c) Provide general muscle relaxation d) Induce loss of consciousness
- Please treat these questions as a learning tool, and refer to authoritative textbooks, medical resources, and professionals for comprehensive and up-to-date information on anesthesiology.
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